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If X never ever = 0, then the intercept has no intrinsic that means. In scientific study, the purpose of a regression model is to comprehend the connection amongst predictors and the reaction.
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But I'm perplexed how this then relates back again into the intercept. Can it be truly continue to defined as above? Or when I start out thinking of the conversation, do I also change the designation for X2 and X3 from the intercept? Thanks.
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sk saha Is that this is possible??the intercept phrase of the regression product is damaging??Can u make me crystal clear using an quick case in point plz???
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